Let a1,a2,…,an,λ1,λ2,…,λn be real constants, λ1<λ2<λ3<⋯<λn. Denote by Z the number of real zeros of the entire function
F(x)=a1eλ1x+a2eλ2x+⋯+aneλnx
and by C the number of changes of sign in the sequence of numbers a1,a2,…,an. Then C−Z is a non-negative even integer. (A generalization of 36, 37 different from 41: Replace ex by x.)
Proof. We may assume without loss of generality that a1,a2,…an are all different from 0. That C−Z is even is evident from the fact that as x→−∞ the term a1eλ1x is the dominant term, and as x→+∞ the term aneλnx is the dominant term. [8, 9, 37.] That C−Z≥0 may be proved by mathematical induction; we deduce the relation for C from that for C−1, with the aid of Rolle's theorem [solution 75]. Indeed, if there are no changes of sign, evidently Z is also =0 and the statement holds. Assume that it holds in the case that there are C−1 changes of sign. F(x) has C changes of sign, C≥1; e.g. let α+1 be an index of change, 1≤α<n, aαaα+1<0. Choose a number λ in the interval λα<λ<λα+1 and consider the function
F∗(x)=eλxdxd[e−λxF(x)]=a1(λ1−λ)eλ1x+⋯+aα(λα−λ)eλαx+aα+1(λα+1−λ)eλα+1x+⋯+an(λn−λ)eλnx.
Let the number of zeros of F∗(x) be Z∗. We have [6, 12]
Z∗≥Z−1.
Let the number of changes of sign of the sequence of coefficients
−a1(λ−λ1),−a2(λ−λ2),…,−aα(λ−λα),aα+1(λα+1−λ),…,an(λn−λ)
be C∗. Clearly
C∗=C−1.
By the assumption of the mathematical induction argument we have
C∗≥Z∗.
From the three relations above it follows that
C≥Z,
q.e.d.---Was it necessary to assume from the outset that a1,a2,…,an are all =0? Could we not also have chosen λ=λα or λ=λα+1?